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please explain (none / 0)

not sure how combining the opinions of 100 more AA's into the 77 and adding that result, esp. considering it's got an MOE of over 7%, gives any better result than adding the 177. And how is the higher MOE factored in?


by desert dawg on Thu Mar 27, 2008 at 09:37:45 PM EST
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Re: please explain (none / 0)

When pollsters poll a population, they don't poll exactly 13% AAs, 11% caucasian Hispanics, 53% women, etc., etc.  They poll who they get to a significant sample size, then weight the responses so that the answers they DID get are proportionally represented in the final number.

In this case, they wanted to know what AAs thought in particular, and they needed some minimum number of them to get a number with statistical significance.  So they surveyed more of them ON PURPOSE and weighted them less.  The adjustment ss the same thing that happens in every poll randomly, it was just forced into the effect.


by Rorgg on Fri Mar 28, 2008 at 12:33:22 AM EST
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Re: please explain (none / 0)

and the higher MOE?


by desert dawg on Fri Mar 28, 2008 at 09:48:01 AM EST
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Re: please explain (none / 0)

Not sure what you're asking here -- yes, the smaller sample size has a bigger MoE than the group as a whole, but lower than it would if it were a proportional percentage... which is the whole point of oversampling: to reduce the MoE on your subset.


by Rorgg on Sat Mar 29, 2008 at 09:12:55 AM EST
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Re: please explain (none / 0)

If your going to troll rate my comment in a different diary, you could at least give an explanation. Nothing I said was inflammatory. Defend yourself if you will.


by zep93 on Thu Apr 03, 2008 at 05:50:47 PM EST
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